Multiple Choice Identify the choice that
best completes the statement or answers the question.


1.

What does the acronym ESD stand for?
A.  Electrostatic Discharge  B.  Electrostatic Device  C.  Electromagnetic
Sensitivity Diac  D.  Electrostatic
Damage 


2.

Current amounts between ______ and _____ can be
lethal.
A.  100mA, 200mA  B.  10mA, 33.3mA  C.  33.3,
75.6mA  D.  4mA, 10mA 


3.

What is the number one concern in regards to
electrical safety?
A.  Proper grounding  B.  ESD  C.  Shock  D.  Faulty
equipment 


4.

Bohr's Atomic Model consists of what three
components?
A.  Neutrons, ion, neutrinos  B.  Protons, neutrons and cations  C.  Tachyons gravitons and electrons  D.  Protons, neutrons and electrons 


5.

Electrons are arranged in _____ around a
nucleus.
A.  orthogonal lattices  B.  shells  C.  loops  D.  spheres 


6.

What are three types of materials used in
electronics?
A.  Conductors, semiconductors and
insulators  B.  Semiconductors,
insulators and semiinsulators  C.  Insulators,
conductors and interions  D.  Conductors,
insulators and regulators 


7.

In the United States there are five common
classifications of fires, which are:
A.  A, C, D, K, M.  B.  A, B ,C, D, E.  C.  A, B, C, E,
M.  D.  A, B, C, D, K. 


8.

Coulomb's Law describes the forces of
attraction or repulsion between electrical charges, which are ______________ to the product of the
charges ______________ to the distance between them.
A.  directly proportional, inversely
proportional  B.  inversely
proportional, directly proportional  C.  indirectly
proportional, directly proportional  D.  inversely
proportional, indirectly proportional 


9.

The magnetic field that surrounds a magnet can best
be described as invisible lines of force, and are commonly referred to as:
A.  lines of flux.  B.  lines of density.  C.  lines of
attraction.  D.  lines of flux
proportionality. 


10.

An analog multimeter (AMM) checks
for:
A.  voltage, resistance and
inductance.  B.  voltage,
resistance and capacitance.  C.  current,
resistance and capacitance.  D.  voltage, current
and resistance. 


11.

An oscilloscope with two vertical inputs, is
commonly referred to as a _______ oscilloscope.
A.  multitrace  B.  dualtrace  C.  sweep
triggertrace  D.  modulationtrace 


12.

Voltage or potential difference is the measure of
potential energy between two points in a circuit and is commonly referred to as:
A.  voltage drop.  B.  voltage flow.  C.  difference in
conduction.  D.  potential
resistance. 


13.

What is impedance?
A.  The resistance of a component at a given
frequency  B.  The conductivity of a component at a given
frequency  C.  The potential difference of a component at a given
frequency  D.  The ability of a component to store a charge at a given
frequency 


14.

A resistor has three color bands of red, brown and
brown. What is the ohmic value of this resistor?
A.  205 Ohms  B.  100 Ohms  C.  210
Ohms  D.  330 Ohms 


15.

What components value is measured in
millihenries?
A.  Capacitor  B.  Inductor  C.  Resistor  D.  Diode 


16.

Ohm's Law characterizes the relationship
between:
A.  power, coulombs, current and
joules.  B.  inductance, resistance, current and
joules.  C.  power, resistance, current and
voltage.  D.  capacitance, inductance, voltage and
current. 


17.

Ohm’s Law states that resistance is
calculated by voltage divided by current. Using Ohms law, how do you determine
power?
A.  Voltage times current  B.  Current divided by resistance  C.  Current squared, divided by resistance  D.  Voltage divided by resistance 


18.

Using a scientific calculator, a 3300 ohm resistor
can be entered with scientific notation as:
A.  3.3 * 10^3.  B.  33 * 10^3.  C.  3.3 *
10^2.  D.  330 * 10^2. 


19.

Total resistance in a series circuit
equals:
A.  half the measured resistance multiplied by the applied
voltage.  B.  the average value of the voltage drops across each
resistor within the circuit.  C.  The sum of the
power dissipated by each resistor.  D.  the sum of all the
resistor values within the circuit. 


20.

If a series circuit has three resistors valued at
10k Ohms, 15k Ohms and 20k Ohms, with a voltage source of 15V, the total current will
be_____.
A.  333.33mA  B.  33.33uA  C.  333.33uA  D.  3.33uA 


21.

Current in a parallel circuit is:
A.  equally divided among each
branch.  B.  inversely proportional to the circuits
resistance.  C.  equal to the sum
of the branch resistances.  D.  equal to the
voltage source, minus the branch resistances. 


22.

With three 2.5k resistors and one 3.4k resistor in
parallel, the total resistance is:
A.  668.81k Ohms.  B.  66.29 Ohms.  C.  669.29
Ohms  D.  670.50k Ohms. 


23.

With one series 8 Ohm resistor connected to two
inparallel resistors, 20 and 30 ohms respectively, what is the total resistance (Rt)?
A.  38 Ohms  B.  30 Ohms  C.  20
Ohms  D.  8 Ohms 


24.

Given a battery rated at 350 amperehours how many
hours will the battery be able to provide 7 amperes?


25.

The basic properties associated with alternating
voltage and current are:
A.  frequency, period, wavelength and
amplitude.  B.  frequency,
deviation, wavelength and amplitude.  C.  magnitude, period,
wavelength and amplitude.  D.  frequency, period,
designation and amplitude. 


26.

What is the calculated effective voltage for the
wave form below?
A.  7.75V  B.  5.48V  C.  10.96V  D.  4.933V 


27.

What is the frequency of the sine wave
below?
A.  150Hz  B.  250Hz  C.  22.5KHz  D.  150KHz 


28.

In the illustration below, what component of the
coaxial cable is letter “B”?
A.  Ground mesh  B.  Outer insulation  C.  Dielectric  D.  Center
conductor 


29.

In an inductor/coil inductance varies as the
_______ of the number of turns.
A.  Cube  B.  Square  C.  Inverse  D.  Log 


30.

What is the total inductance of the circuit below?
A.  0.90H  B.  4.24H  C.  4.63H  D.  9H 


31.

Two basic uses for transformers are:
A.  power supplies and bias
control.  B.  signal matching and power
supplies.  C.  signal matching and voltage
regulation.  D.  voltage regulation
and rectification. 


32.

What is meant by "transformer
action"?
A.  The action in which an expanding and contracting
magnetic field around the primary winding cuts the secondary winding and induces a direct voltage
into the winding  B.  The transfer of
energy from one circuit to another circuit by magnetic rectification  C.  The transfer of load voltage to the centertapped secondary through
capacitance  D.  The transfer of
energy from one circuit to another circuit by electromagnetic
induction 


33.

What are the three basic parts of a
transformer?
A.  Primary winding, dielectric and
core  B.  Primary winding, secondary winding and
core  C.  Primary winding, power diode and secondary
winding  D.  Primary winding, secondary winding and tertiary
winding 


34.

In the circuit below, what is the voltage output at
letter “X”, when input voltage is 25V?


35.

The time required to charge a capacitor to 63
percent is known as:
A.  Thevenin’s constant.  B.  a time constant.  C.  a linear
superposition.  D.  Tau. 


36.

Given the series capacitive circuit below, what is
the total capacitance?
A.  .008uF  B.  .08uF  C.  .076mF  D.  .8uF 


37.

Calculate the capacitive reactance for 440 Hz and
9µF.
A.  44 Ohms  B.  .02 Ohms  C.  37.37
Ohms  D.  40.21 Ohms 


38.

In a resistivecapacitive circuit the vector line
relationship shows two lines perpendicular to each other. What is the phase
relationship?
A.  In phase  B.  Out of phase  C.  180 degree
difference  D.  90
degree 


39.

In a capacitive circuit, what is the voltage and
current relationship?
A.  Current lags  B.  Voltage lags  C.  Resistance
leads  D.  Voltage leads 


40.

When the frequency of an applied voltage is
increased the capacitive reactance of a circuit will:
A.  decrease.  B.  increase.  C.  stay
unchanged.  D.  short all
capacitors to ground. 


41.

What is the difference between calculating
impedance for a series AC circuit and a parallel AC circuit?
A.  A series impedance calculation is derived from current
and reactance, while parallel impedance is calculated with resistive and reactive current divided
into the source current  B.  A series impedance
calculation is derived from resistance and reactance, while parallel impedance is calculated with
resistive and reactive current divided into the source voltage  C.  A series impedance calculation is derived from current and reactance, while
parallel impedance is calculated with resistive and reactive current divided into the source
voltage  D.  A series impedance calculation is derived from current
and reactance, while parallel impedance is calculated with resistive and reactive voltage divided
into the source current 


42.

Each type of coaxial cable is designed
with_____________, which is dependent on materials and dimensions used.
A.  characteristic impedance  B.  standing waves  C.  transverse
impedance  D.  skin effect 


43.

A coaxial cable's velocity of propagation
factor depends on what two factors?
A.  Dielectric constant and
permeability  B.  Radio frequency
interference and permeability  C.  Common mode
current reflection and permeability  D.  Transinduction
and dielectric constant 


44.

In a series resistive and reactive circuit what
formula is used to find total impedance?
A.  Z = X^{2}
(R^{2}/2)  B.  Z =sqrt(
R^{2} + X^{2})  C.  Z =R^{2} (
X^{2}/2)  D.  Z =sqrt(
R^{2} + X^{2})/2 


45.

Silicon diodes have an approximate voltage drop
of:


46.

To properly bias the NPN transistor below, which
voltages are correct?
A.  E = +3; B = +1; C = 7  B.  E = 1; B = +1; C = +10  C.  E = 1.7; B =
2.7; C = 5  D.  E = 0; B = 0; C =
+12 


47.

In regards to AWG standards, which gauge of wire
has a bigger crosssectional area?
A.  16 AWG  B.  18 AWG  C.  20
AWG  D.  24 AWG 


48.

Using ohm’s law for the circuit below,
calculate the total power.
A.  166.6 mW  B.  160.65 mW  C.  16.6
mW  D.  16 uW 


49.

In the circuit below, what is the calculated power
for R3.
A.  42.3W  B.  43.2W  C.  64.8W  D.  72W 


50.

In the circuit below, what is the current across
R2?


51.

What is the voltage at terminal ‘A’ for
the Wheatstone bridge below?
A.  10.3V  B.  2.2V  C.  1.3V  D.  1.86V 


52.

What formula is used to properly calculate
‘Vout’ for the voltage divider below?
A.  V_{out} =
(R_{2}/R_{2}+R_{1}) * V_{in}  B.  V_{out} = (R_{1}/R_{2}+R_{1}) *
V_{in}  C.  V_{out} =
(R_{1}/R_{2}+V_{in}) * V_{in}  D.  V_{out} = (R_{2}/R_{2}*R_{1}) +
V_{in} 


53.

In the circuit below, what is the value of
R2?
A.  75.75 ohms  B.  77.77 ohms  C.  76.76
ohms  D.  67.75 ohms 


54.

What is a primary advantage of a FET when compared
to the bipolar transistor?
A.  High input impedance  B.  Low input impedance  C.  Gate biasing is
resistive controlled  D.  No
advantage 


55.

Zener diodes are designed to operate in the _____
bias region.
A.  forward  B.  depletion  C.  reverse  D.  reactive 


56.

When compared to a JFET, the base of a bipolar
transistor is similar to what element of the JFET?
A.  Gate  B.  Drain  C.  Source  D.  Emitter 


57.

A MOSFET is comprised of what four
elements?
A.  Gate, source, collector and
substrate  B.  Gate, source, drain and
substrate  C.  Base, source, drain and
dielectric  D.  Dielectric,
source, drain and base 


58.

How many PN junctions does a Unijunction transistor
have?


59.

Which bipolar transistor configuration has a
current gain of less than 1?
A.  Common base  B.  Common collector  C.  Emitter
follower  D.  Common emitter 


60.

A thyristor is a semiconductor with _____ layers
that form ____ PN junctions.


61.

Calculate total impedance for the circuit
below.
A.  120 ohms  B.  420 ohms  C.  1012.75
ohms  D.  979.93 ohms 


62.

Calculate the voltage drop across C1.
A.  43.66V  B.  4.7V  C.  28.44  D.  50V 


63.

What is I_{z} for the circuit
below?


64.

When calculating power levels, which formula is
correct?
A.  dB=log(P1/P2)  B.  dB=10*log(P1/P2)  C.  dB=20*log(P1/P2)  D.  dB=1*log(P1/P2) 


65.

If a signal decreases by 3 dB, how much power is
lost?


66.

3dBm is equal to how many
milliwatts?


67.

The formula to calculate dBm from mW
is:
A.  10 log_{10}( P / 1mW)  B.  20 log_{10}( P / 1mW)  C.  10 log_{10}( P / .5mW)  D.  10 log_{10}( P^2 / 1mW) 


68.

The split capacitors in a Colpitts oscillator
provide:
A.  regenerative feedback.  B.  interelement capacitance.  C.  degenerative feedback.  D.  a phase shift in
signal. 


69.

Why are crystal oscillators preferred over other
types of oscillators?
A.  When keeping frequency error or drift at a minimum is
important  B.  Reduced amplitude through degenerative feedback is
preferred  C.  Tolerance for frequency error or drift is not
important  D.  When a resistive dampening effective is
needed 


70.

What is the resonant frequency for the circuit
below?
A.  7.5 kHz  B.  15 kHz  C.  30
kHz  D.  75 kHz 


71.

Why is a differentiator used at the input of a
flipflop?
A.  To produce a sharp spike  B.  To provide negative resistance  C.  To provide high input impedance  D.  To produce a rounded waveform 


72.

What is one way to minimize parasitic
oscillations?
A.  Place a swamping resistor across the
transformer  B.  Increase the
resonant tank frequency  C.  Use a blocking
oscillator  D.  Reduce the
fundamental frequency of frequencydeterminingdevice 


73.

In a class ‘C’collector:
A.  output current flows for the complete cycle of the
input.  B.  collector current is cut off during onehalf of the
input signal.  C.  collector current
will flow for approximately 180 degrees (half) of the input signal.  D.  collector current flows for less than one half cycle of the input
signal. 


74.

What is the radix of the hexadecimal number
system?


75.

What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal
number 622?


76.

What is the decimal sum of 10010 and
11001?


77.

What is the digital gate equivalent for the circuit
below?


78.

Which truth table is correct for the following
logic diagram?


79.

What does the acronym EAROM stand
for?
A.  Electrically Accessible Random Only
Memory  B.  Electrically Alterable Read Only
Memory  C.  Electrically Accessable Read Only
Memory  D.  Electrically Actuated Read Only
Memory 


80.

What are three processor functions of a
CPU?
A.  Arithmetic logic, interfacing and
control  B.  Asynchronous communications interface, peripheral
interface control and serial data coupling  C.  Arithmetic logic,
data frequency timing and control  D.  Arithmetic
communications interface, peripheral interface control and serial data
coupling 


81.

If an oscilloscopes TIME/DIV is set at .2
microseconds, and the width of the pulse measured is at 8 divisions on the scope graticule, what is
the pulse width?
A.  .8 microseconds  B.  1.6 microseconds  C.  4
microseconds  D.  .4
microseconds 


82.

The coaxial cable leading to a cable TV is a 75 ohm
transmission line. If you use 10Base2 coax cable for networking, that is a _____ ohm transmission
line.


83.

Why is flux used when soldering?
A.  To prevent cold solder joints  B.  To add impurities into the solder  C.  To act as a bonding accelerant.  D.  To prevent the formation of metal oxides at extreme
temperatures 


84.

Lead and tin solder at a respective percentage of
63/37 melts at ______:
A.  351^{o} F.  B.  361^{o} F.  C.  341^{o}
F.  D.  155^{o}
F. 


85.

What four methods are used in coupling amplifier
stages?
A.  Direct, RC, diode, and transformer
coupling  B.  Direct, LC, impedance, and transformer
coupling  C.  Transistor, RC, impedance, and transformer
coupling  D.  Direct, RC, impedance and transformer
coupling 


86.

What formula is used to calculate output voltage of
a Difference operational amplifier?
A.  Vout = (Rf/Rin)(V2  V1)  B.  Vout = (Rf/Rin)+(V2  V1)  C.  Vout = (Rf/Rin)(V2  RF)  D.  Vout = (Rf*Rin)(V1
 RF) 


87.

Due to the configuration of the filtering
components, the ability of a_____ type filter to remove ripple voltage is superior to that of either
the _______ or ________ filter.
A.  L, resistivecapacitive,
inductive  B.  Pi, capacitive, inductive  C.  T, capacitive, resistive  D.  T,
crystalcapacitive, inductive 


88.

What type of diagram shows electrical connections
and functions of a specific circuit arrangement?
A.  Pictorial  B.  Schematic  C.  Block  D.  Ishikawa and
singleline 


89.

Opening and closing vinyl envelopes used to carry
work instructions, with 1020% relative humidity, electrostatic voltages can reach as high
as:
A.  2,500V  B.  18,000V  C.  7,000V  D.  35,000V 


90.

What is the modulus of a fivestage binary
counter?


91.

What is the preferred method for removing solder
from a component attached to a circuit card assembly (CCA)?
A.  Motorized vacuum extraction  B.  Wicking  C.  Manual extraction
vacuum  D.  Shaking the CCA when solder melt is
achieved 


92.

To overcome noise, distortion and cost of
maintenance in frequency division multiple systems, ________ systems were developed.
A.  timedivision multiplex  B.  phasetime division  C.  code division
multiple access  D.  quadrature
amplitude modulation 


93.

What does LEC stand for?
A.  Local exchange carrier  B.  Local essential channel  C.  Local effective
communication  D.  Local exchange
circuit 


94.

Circuit switch networks maintain only _____ path(s)
for the duration of the call.


95.

What are the three fundamental types of wireless
access technologies?
A.  FDMA, QMA and TDMA  B.  FDMA, CDMA and WPA  C.  FDMA, L2TP and
TDMA  D.  FDMA, CDMA and
TDMA 


96.

In the kinescope, the ________ intensity of an
electron beam from an electron gun is modulated in accordance with the ________ variations of signals
received by a control electrode, or modulator.
A.  current, frequency  B.  voltage, amplitude  C.  phase,
frequency  D.  current,
amplitude 


97.

An electromagnetic wave is composed of an
electromagnetic and electric field, which are at ______ from one another.
A.  90 degrees  B.  180 degrees  C.  270
degrees  D.  45 degrees 


98.

A vertically polarized antenna has a magnetic field
that is at a _____ angle to the axis of the antenna.
A.  22.5 degree  B.  90 degree  C.  45
degree  D.  135 degree 


99.

The 4meter frequency band is also known as the
_____ band.
A.  70 MHz  B.  39 MHz  C.  9
MHz  D.  118.000 MHz 


100.

In a common anode, sevensegment LED display, an
individual LED will light if a negative voltage is applied to what element?
A.  Cathode  B.  Segment 7  C.  Segment
1  D.  Anode 
